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"of Iranian stock" doesnt really mean Iranian. Iranian is a nationality or a location. No mention of his ever doing anything in Iran. Rathfelder (talk) 19:00, 31 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]
This figure was born in the Mughal Empire to Iranian parents and wrote all of his works in Persian. So he suddenly turned full blown Indian when he was born there? What about all those British figures who were born in British India; were they all Indian rather than British? Or were they both? Mind you, technically, there was not even a nation of "India" at the time of Mirza Abu Taleb Khan's birth. And for the record, per EI3: "Abū Ṭālib Khān Tabrīzī Iṣfahānī (1166–1220/1752 or 1753–1805 or 1806) was a Persian author and traveller born and raised in Lucknow, the son of Ḥājji Muḥammad Beg Khān (d. 1182/1768), an Iranian settled in India. " -- Enc of Islam, third edition[1]
"Iranian is a nationality or a location. No mention of his ever doing anything in Iran."
Did you even read the Encyclopaedia of Islam source which I copy-pasted here? Its also cited in the lede of the article. It describes Mirza Abu Taleb Khan as "Persian" and his parentage as "Iranian". The "Indian" part in the lede of this article refers to his area of birth (i.e. some sources refer to him as Indian of Persian descent)[2]. I think both Indian and Iranian categories should stay, per WP:RS and WP:VER. - LouisAragon (talk) 20:02, 31 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]
We have categories like "Indians of Persian descent", but as he appears never to have visited Persia it seems misleading to categorise him as Persian. Category:Iranian people is based on nationality, not descent or language. Rathfelder (talk) 21:15, 31 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]