Talk:Inverse Pythagorean theorem
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Should this be moved to reciprocal Pythagorean theorem?
[edit]"Inverse" (without the qualifier "multiplicative" attached) seems like it has a much higher potential for confusion, for example with the converse of the Pythagorean theorem, whereas reciprocal is clear and unambiguous. –jacobolus (t) 19:03, 30 March 2023 (UTC)