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Dimensionless property

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Is area/surface dimensionless (m-1)? for what i know for the inverse is untrue (m), also isnt a hz a dimensioned number if so area/surface also is.--Neurorebel (talk) 19:37, 4 July 2017 (UTC)[reply]

It is possible for a function of quantities having physical dimensions to be dimensionless. The article gives examples. Doctor Whom (talk) 12:38, 5 July 2017 (UTC)[reply]

potential sources

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I think this article could use some more concrete examples. I searched and found some potential sources that might be used for this:

I'm listing them here mainly so I don't have to find them again, but hopefully they are useful to others and can eventually get incorporated into the article. --Lasunncty (talk) 10:11, 28 December 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Ok, I've added some examples from the sources I mentioned above. When I submitted, it warned me that one or more of my references were from predatory publishers. I'm not sure which one it is, so I left everything as is. --Lasunncty (talk) 12:23, 22 January 2020 (UTC)[reply]