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November 5

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Pillai's theorem:

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For every , Pillai's theorem states the following:

  • The difference for any λ less than 1, uniformly in m and n.

I wonder if one can prove (e.g. by his theorem) the following claim:

  • There exists , such that for every , there exist such that every satisfy .

If the answer is positive, and is the minimal prime larger than any given , then I also wonder if one can prove (e.g. by his theorem) the following:

  • There exists , such that for every , there exist such that every satisfy .

185.24.76.181 (talk) 14:11, 5 November 2021 (UTC)[reply]

I'd like to see a precise statement of the theorem, written out with explicit quantifiers. Perhaps I misunderstand the notation, but I doubt that, uniformly,
 --Lambiam 18:31, 5 November 2021 (UTC)[reply]
Well, he at least means that for every and every , there exist such that every satisfy for any λ less than 1. 185.24.76.176 (talk) 19:23, 6 November 2021 (UTC)[reply]
So set and given and with the stated property whose existence is promised for these values, set Then the lhs of the inequation equals while the rhs equals  --Lambiam 22:57, 6 November 2021 (UTC)[reply]
Well, I was wrong with my interpretation. Reading our article about Pillai's theorem, I'm sure he at least meant that for every , there exist such that every satisfy for any λ less than 1. 185.24.76.176 (talk) 23:26, 6 November 2021 (UTC)[reply]
Then set and the rest as before.  --Lambiam 23:55, 6 November 2021 (UTC)[reply]
Oh, so weird! Thanks to your comment, now I wonder what our article means - quoting Pillai's theorem. 185.24.76.176 (talk) 10:53, 7 November 2021 (UTC)[reply]