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September 12

Abbreviation EU-OSHA

Why does the European Agency for Safety and Health at Work use the abbreviation EU-OSHA? It's hard to find an explanation on the web, but it seems obvious that the abbreviation was chosen in analogy to the US Occupational Safety and Health Administration. But when you use a different name, why take the same, unsuitable abbreviation? Is there another explanation? The French name doesn't fit either. Are there other examples of EU institution copying the abbreviation of the American example, although it doesn't fit? --KnightMove (talk) 02:09, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

It stands for Occupational Safety and Health Agency (not administration) source source OSH appears to be a standard abbreviation in many countries, not a specifically American one. 70.67.193.176 (talk) 04:13, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Non-territorial minorities that subsequently became territorial majorities

Which non-territorial minorities subsequently became territorial majorities? As in, which minorities (whether ethnic, religious, or something else) were initially scattered across a bunch of territories but subsequently moved en masse to a particular viable, contiguous territory and were thus able to become a majority of the total population in this territory? So far, I could think of:

Jews. They were initially scattered throughout the world but due to a lot of them moving to Palestine/Israel over the last 100 years, they were able to form a majority of the total population in (most of) Israel.
Sikhs. They were scattered throughout Punjab but as a result of the partition of India and the subsequent mass migration of the Sikhs in western Punjab to eastern Punjab, Sikhs were able to form a majority of the total population in eastern Punjab.
Mormons. They were initially a non-territorial minority, but after their subsequent move to Utah (and some nearby territories, such as parts of southeastern Idaho), they were able to form a majority of the total population there and thus became a territorial majority.

Anyway, what additional examples of non-territorial minorities becoming territorial minorities am I forgetting to list here? Futurist110 (talk) 02:54, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

There are some problems with trying to answer. First, many ethnic and religious minorities have gone through cycles of having a homeland, losing it, regaining it again, etc. In the case of the Jews, for example, there was Judea and Ancient Israel. SinisterLefty (talk) 03:00, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, there was, but that was 2,000 years ago. Futurist110 (talk) 03:05, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Also, if you look at a small enough territory, like one town, then just about any minority can have a majority there, such as the Oneida Community. SinisterLefty (talk) 03:00, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, certainly! I know that Jews were a majority of the total population in some Eastern European cities and towns before the Holocaust. For instance, Grodno. That said, though, I'm looking for territories that are larger than a mere city is. In other words, I want territories that are capable of (theoretically) becoming viable states. Futurist110 (talk) 03:05, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Cities can become viable states. We have several modern city-states, such as Singapore. SinisterLefty (talk) 03:13, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

That's actually a fair point, though I would prefer the relevant territory (potential state) to be as large as possible. Futurist110 (talk) 03:52, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Shouldn't the last word of the title and 3rd bullet be changed to "majorities" ? SinisterLefty (talk) 04:01, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Yeah, I guess that it should be. Futurist110 (talk) 05:58, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

OK, I fixed both. SinisterLefty (talk) 11:15, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

...and the last word of the first sentence? DroneB (talk) 12:38, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Good catch. I fixed that one, too. SinisterLefty (talk) 08:57, 13 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Not sure what you are up, but USSR is involved in quite a few population movements that changed the ethnic balance of a number of place. Just for instance German, Königsberg became Russian Kaliningrad (at the same time, East Prussia turned Polish; while I guess this may not be what you mean, it DID involve Polish people coming to inhabit there). Gem fr (talk) 14:01, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, but I want cases where a population didn't have any or much territory where it formed a majority of the total population and later formed such a majority in a particular territory as a result of mass migration. Your examples of Kaliningrad and the Recovered Territories don't really work for this since Russians and Poles both had plenty of territories where they were a majority of the total population even before they settled en masse in Kaliningrad and the Recovered Territories. In contrast, with the exception of some Eastern European cities (that are very small in territory), Jews had no territories where they were a majority of the total population until they moved en masse to Palestine/Israel over the last 100 years. Futurist110 (talk) 23:30, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Chinos pants

I'm looking for sources about chinos pants. It seems surprisingly difficult to find something that gives a good overview. Any advice is appreciated. Benjamin (talk) 07:39, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

https://www.burton.co.uk/blog/the-history-of-chinos-how-to-wear, https://magazine.brooksbrothers.com/chinos-american-style-story, https://westernrise.com/blogs/news/garment-study-chino-pants, Chino cloth. I would guess the problem is that you searched under just "chinos" and were swamped by sites selling them. I searched for "history of chinos" to get better hits. SinisterLefty (talk) 11:17, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

value of a currency note

If the value of currency notes of South Asian country falls compared to Dollar, then what are the reasons behind this?

There are some European countries which are clean, but they don't have large cities and industries like some developing Asian countries, yet their currency Euro has greater value than industrialized Asian countries. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Сила тигра (talk • contribs) 08:59, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

There are many reasons for currency exchange rates to change. There's the relative strength of the economies, the political stability of the nations, possible currency manipulation, etc. Also note that some economies have largely moved beyond industrialization into a service economy. For example, they can export "information", in the broadest sense, such as entertainment (sports, movies, TV shoes, video games). They can also design equipment, medication, products, etc., which is manufactured elsewhere. Also note that being "clean" can increase tourism, which in turn brings in foreign currency and changes the exchange rate. SinisterLefty (talk) 11:08, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Relevant articles include Exchange rate and Currency appreciation and depreciation. Bear in mind that currencies did not all start from the same time on a "level footing" – there is no particular meaning in their relative numerical values, but rather in the changes of those values. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 90.202.210.107 (talk) 11:18, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Note that the value per se of a currency doesn't matter. When the Euro was introduced, the value of money changed in each country, was divided by ~2.5 in Malta, and multiplied by ~2000 in Italy; and the prices moved opposite (x2.5 in Malta, divided by 2000 in Italy), so basically nothing changed but the standard, pretty much like during a switch from miles to kilometers the distances keep the same but the representative numbers are x1.6 . Japan has a solid economy with a Yen worth ~1/100 of a US Dollar, you just need JPY 100 to buy USD 1 worth of goods; you have to check purchasing power parity. Gem fr (talk) 11:39, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Actually a common complaint in countries that changed to euro from a currency of smaller nominal value is that retailers used the switch to create an invisible price hike. 93.136.122.4 (talk) 11:50, 14 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

If your currency falls in value relative to others, the effect is to make imports more expensive and exports cheaper. This reduces demand for foreign goods at home, and makes your produce more saleable abroad. Countries sometimes deliberately devalue their own currency to promote their economy in that way. It's not a good policy if your country is dependant on imports (oil for example) in order to make a living. Alansplodge (talk) 17:06, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

BUT. This is true for inflation 0%. A rare situation. More often, inflation will make home goods more expensive, offsetting the import/export effect you mention. Besides, you may find foreigners eager to buy capital assets (land, corporations...) in your country instead of the good produced by these corporations, because they would be cheaper to buy with their more valuable currency, which you may (or not) be pleased of. Then again, you have to check purchasing power parity. Gem fr (talk) 21:41, 12 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

All good answers, although I would point out to user:Gem fr that the difference between the rate of devaluation and the rate of domestic inflation is the key to local competitiveness. A 10% devaluation (or 10% deflation, i.e., a decline over a somewhat longer period of time) accompanied by a 2% rise in inflation isn’t likely to undermine domestic competitiveness. DOR (HK) (talk) 15:23, 13 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]