User talk:Nolewr
I think your changes are true only referring to a certain phase of old Hebrew. Modern Hebrew certainly does have past and future tenses. Could you try to include this information in the explanation you edited? Dan Pelleg (talk) 17:05, 29 January 2008 (UTC)
It is true that the Hebrew perfect and imperfect tenses have essentially developed into past and future tenses (with the participle functioning as a present tense), but Modern Hebrew does not use vav consecutive forms. Biblical Hebrew, which does use the vav consecutive, did not have tenses in the Indo-European sense, being aspective instead.
- Thanks for that information! Could you please reword the two examples preceding the note? Their present wording reflects the way most modern Hebrew speakers understand Vav Consecutive, i.e. merely as a temporal reversal agent, but no other semantic function such as temporal positioning within a temporal sequence! Dan Pelleg (talk) 22:53, 15 February 2008 (UTC)