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From the article: ”The Synodicon Vetus is also the only ancient source that asserts the canonical books of the Bible were decided at the First Council of Nicaea.” This seems to be stretching the boundaries of “ancient”. Shouldn’t the Synodicon Vetus be considered early medieval rather than ancient? —Amble (talk) 14:17, 28 August 2021 (UTC)[reply]
I came here to post the same comment. Late 9th century is firmly medieval, definitely not ancient by anybody's definition. Probably "pre-modern" (by comparison with 18th century Voltaire and everyone who copied from him) is intended. Vultur~enwiki (talk) 19:35, 16 January 2025 (UTC)[reply]
Yes, "pre-modern" would be good. However, I'm not sure whether there might be other medieval mentions later than the Synodicon Vetus. Perhaps we should just go with "earliest". --Amble (talk) 19:47, 16 January 2025 (UTC)[reply]
