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Thanks

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Thanks to HappyCamper for posting this for me.South Philly 23:40, 25 February 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Source of name.

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The name was adopted, partly, in allusion to the situation of the district south of the city of Philadelphia, but it was also adopted from the name of a borough in the county of Surrey, England, immediately opposite the city of London.

This doesn't really make sense. Southwark was the London borough located directly south of London. The name of the London borough and the district's situation aren't alternate and competing reasons for the name; together they explain it. This should probably be changed, eh? john k 20:35, 8 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

That's what the sources said ... so i say leave it as it is. --South Philly 21:25, 8 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

What do you mean the sources said? What I mean is that the original Southwark was a district so-called because it was just to the south of London. Similarly, Southwark here was so-called because it was just to the south of Philly, in the same way that Southwark is just to the south of London. john k 23:11, 8 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
The sentence is totally bizarre, because it implies that there is somehow a conflict between it being called Southwark because it is just south of Philly and it being called that after the town just south of London called Southwark. I shall change it in the manner you will see... john k 03:46, 9 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

The sentence as it was implied that there were two sources for Southwark's name, when in fact there is one. You can now see my proposed change in the current version of the article. john k 04:07, 9 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Southwark as a modern neighborhood.

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It's not a neighborhood. It wasn't a neighborhood 300 years ago and it isn't today. It was an old township with several neighborhoods and today it would be part of no less than 6 neighborhoods. More to the point, no one uses the term anymore. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 68.37.172.116 (talk) 04:15, 19 July 2010 (UTC)[reply]

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