Talk:Semelfactive

Badly in need of work by an expert

A paragraph backed by a reference to Comrie, says that semelfactives are telic. A paragraph backed by a reference to Carlotta Smith, says that semelfactives are atelic. Does this mean Comrie and Smith disagree about the nature of the semelfactive aspect? That they disagree about the meaning of the word semelfactive and how it should be used in linguistics? That they disagree about the meaning of telic and atelic? Or does it means that Wikipedia writers misunderstood one (or both) authors? Or accidentally typed an a making atelic instead of telic? Someone who has Smith's book at hand should fix this.

One paragraph seems to claim that Comrie invented the idea; another paragraph seems to ascribe it to Smith. This needs rewriting. — Solo Owl (talk) 12:22, 28 December 2010 (UTC)[reply]

I heard the term semelfactive in 1952, when Comrie was five    Seadowns (talk) 21:57, 27 October 2017 (UTC).[reply]

Yeah, as far as I can remember from my semantics class, there is some disagreement as to whether or not semelfactives are telic. It would be good to spell that out in any Wikipedia articles that make claims about them. --71.202.175.210 (talk) 04:46, 14 December 2012 (UTC)[reply]

To add to article

Basic information to add to this article: the etymology of the word "semelfactive." 173.88.246.138 (talk) 21:06, 8 May 2021 (UTC)[reply]