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Abolition in England and Wales

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The article states: 'In England, the end of serfdom began with the Peasants' Revolt in 1381. It had largely died out in England by 1500 as a personal status, and was fully ended when Elizabeth I freed the last remaining serfs in 1574.[5]' However, if one goes to the source given and reads it carefully, it emerges that in 1574 Elizabeth I freed the remaining serfs on her own estates, not generally or without exception in England and Wales. These are two different things. Norvo (talk) 22:15, 2 June 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Russia

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The article had only a few words about Russia-- which is the largest case in terms of number of serfs and in terms of depth of the historiography. So I added a brief overview with links and new citations. Rjensen (talk) 12:13, 25 February 2015 (UTC)[reply]

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Fictional work used as source

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Citation 6, "Le Roi de Fer" by Maurice Druon is a work of fiction. It is historical fiction, but it does not provide evidence that "Serfdom was de facto ended in France by Philip IV, Louis X (1315), and Philip V (1318)"

Heyday section

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Am I alone in finding the section title "Heyday" a bit unserious? It's a term associated with phenomena far less serious and less brutal than a form of slavery. I would suggest "Prevalence" or "Zenith", or perhaps the historical era with which the section is concerned? Just a thought. Matuko (talk) 18:56, 27 September 2020 (UTC)[reply]

I agree. I'll retitle as "Prevalence" unless you have another idea for it :•) — I'ma editor2022 (🗣️💬 |📖📚) 21:09, 13 April 2023 (UTC)[reply]

Inadequate Lead?

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The lead doesn't summarize the contents of the article, is unnecessarily short, and doesn't follow MOS guidelines for lead section. I would appreciate if someone could expand the lead section from just a few words. — I'ma editor2022 (🗣️💬 |📖📚) 21:06, 13 April 2023 (UTC)[reply]