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I think the article mixes two different things: foreclosure on a mortgage, and seizure and sale of property by a court. In the first case, the creditor already holds a lien on the property; in the second case, the creditor's claims may be unrelated to the property. Maybe a person with legal expertise can straighten this out? Wegesrand (talk) 10:39, 5 September 2018 (UTC)[reply]